written 7.9 years ago by |
Assuming pin fin of infinitely long fin
Fin Effectiveness$(ε_f)$
=$\frac{(heat transfer rate with fin)}{(heat transfer rate without fin)}$=$\frac{Q_(with fin)}{Q_(without fin)}$ =$\frac{Q_0}{(hA_c θ_0 )}$
$Q_0$=$\sqrt{(hPA_c K)}∙θ_0$
substituting above
$ε_f$=$\frac{\sqrt{(hPA_c K)}∙θ_0)}{(hA_c θ_0 )}$=$\sqrt{(\frac{Pk}{(hA_c }}$
For first fin which has lesser diameter effectiveness would be
$ε_f1$=$\sqrt{(\frac{4k}{hD})}$ as $\frac{A}{P}$=$\frac{D}{4}$
For second pin fin which has twice the diameter effectiveness would be
$ε_f2$=$\sqrt{\frac{2k}{hD}}$ as $\frac{A}{P}$=$\frac{D}{4}$
Effectiveness of fin with lesser diameter is higher (ans(i))
Fin Efficiency( η)
=(Actual heat transferred by the fin)/(max.heat transfer by fin if entire fin area were at base temperature)
=$\sqrt{\frac{KA_cs}{hPl^2}}$
Fin efficiency for lesser diameter would be
=$\sqrt{\frac{KD}{4hl^2}}$
Fin efficiency for twice the diameter would be
=$\sqrt{\frac{KD}{2hl^2}}$
Efficiency for fin with twice the diameter would be higher(ans(ii))